NBRC TMC Practice Questions 2026: 8 Exam-Style Items Explained
8 exam-style NBRC TMC questions with the answer, the reasoning and why each distractor is wrong. Commit to a letter before you reveal.
- 8 questionsOn this page
- 160 itemsReal exam
- 180 minTime limit
- $190Exam fee
- 500Bank on ExamCert AI

Table of Contents
How to use this page
These 8 items are written the way the Therapist Multiple-Choice (TMC) Examination (low cut score) through December 31, 2026; Respiratory Therapy (RT) Examination (low cut score) from January 1, 2027 writes them: one best answer, plausible distractors, and a stem that usually hides the deciding detail in one clause. Treat it as a mini mock, not reading material.
The 8 questions
A 25-year-old man is in the emergency department with a closed tibial fracture. He is alert and talking, his respiratory rate is 16/min with no accessory muscle use, and his skin and nail beds are pink. The finger pulse oximeter reads SpO2 82%. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist do FIRST?
- APlace the patient on 35% oxygen via an air-entrainment mask
- BObtain an arterial blood gas
- CDocument the reading; no action is needed
- DCheck the probe site and signal, and compare the oximeter pulse rate with the palpated or ECG heart rate
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: D — Check the probe site and signal, and compare the oximeter pulse rate with the palpated or ECG heart rate
The reading does not fit the patient: an SpO2 of 82% would usually come with tachypnea, distress or cyanosis. When a monitor disagrees with the bedside picture, troubleshoot the device first: probe position and fit, motion, a cold or poorly perfused finger, nail polish and ambient light, and whether the oximeter's pulse rate matches the patient's real heart rate. If a good-quality signal still reads low, confirm with an arterial sample.
- A. This treats a number nobody has validated. Oxygen will not fix a misplaced or poorly perfused probe, and it hides the real problem.
- B. An ABG is the confirming test if a verified signal stays low, but an invasive, painful test is not the first step when a quick equipment check may explain the reading.
- C. An SpO2 of 82% cannot simply be filed away; it has to be either explained as artifact or confirmed before it is dismissed.
During an acute asthma exacerbation, the respiratory therapist notes that the patient's systolic blood pressure falls by 20 mm Hg each time the patient inhales and recovers on exhalation. Which term describes this finding?
- APulsus alternans
- BPulsus paradoxus
- COrthostatic hypotension
- DPulsus parvus et tardus
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — Pulsus paradoxus
Pulsus paradoxus is an exaggerated inspiratory fall in systolic pressure, defined as more than 10 mm Hg. In severe asthma, large negative pleural pressure swings on inspiration increase left-ventricular afterload and cut stroke volume. A 20 mm Hg fall marks a severe exacerbation (the same sign appears in cardiac tamponade).
- A. Pulsus alternans is a beat-to-beat alternation of strong and weak pulses that does not follow breathing; it signals severe left-ventricular failure.
- C. Orthostatic hypotension is a fall in blood pressure on standing up. It follows posture, not each breath.
- D. Pulsus parvus et tardus is a weak, late-peaking pulse caused by aortic stenosis; it does not vary with the respiratory cycle.
A 55-year-old woman with a 45 pack-year smoking history presents with long-standing shortness of breath. On room air her ABG is: pH 7.38, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, PaO2 52 mm Hg, HCO3- 39 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
- ACompensated (chronic) respiratory acidosis
- BAcute (uncompensated) respiratory acidosis
- CCompensated metabolic alkalosis
- DAcute metabolic alkalosis
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Compensated (chronic) respiratory acidosis
PaCO2 and HCO3- are both high, so one is the primary problem and the other is compensation. A pH of 7.38 sits on the acid side of 7.40, which points to the acid-producing value, the high PaCO2, as primary. A normal pH with a markedly raised HCO3- means the kidneys have had days to compensate: the classic picture of chronic CO2 retention in COPD.
- B. An acute rise of PaCO2 to 68 mm Hg would drop the pH to about 7.18-7.20 and raise HCO3- by only about 3 mEq/L. This pH is normal.
- C. In a primary metabolic alkalosis the pH would sit on the alkaline side of 7.40, and respiratory compensation rarely pushes PaCO2 much above about 55 mm Hg.
- D. An acute metabolic alkalosis would have an alkalemic pH above 7.45; this pH is 7.38.
Before a radial arterial puncture, the respiratory therapist performs a modified Allen test. The patient clenches the fist while the therapist compresses both the radial and ulnar arteries, then opens the hand, which is blanched. What should the therapist do next?
- ARelease the radial artery and watch for the palm to flush
- BRelease the ulnar artery and watch for the palm to flush
- CRelease both arteries at once and compare the color of both hands
- DProceed with the radial puncture, since blanching shows good collateral flow
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — Release the ulnar artery and watch for the palm to flush
The test asks whether the ulnar artery alone can perfuse the hand if the radial artery is damaged by the puncture. Keep the radial artery compressed and release the ulnar: color returning within about 5-10 seconds (some references allow up to 15) indicates adequate collateral flow. Delayed or absent flushing means choosing another site.
- A. Releasing the radial artery tests the radial supply, the very vessel about to be punctured, so it tells you nothing about collateral circulation.
- C. Releasing both arteries lets either one refill the hand, so the result cannot isolate ulnar flow.
- D. Blanching is the expected effect of occluding both arteries. It is the midpoint of the test, not its result.
The respiratory therapist is to give a nebulizer treatment to a patient with pneumonia who also has active Clostridioides difficile diarrhea. In addition to Standard Precautions, which set of precautions is MOST appropriate?
- AGloves only, and alcohol-based hand rub after leaving the room
- BN95 respirator and an airborne infection isolation room
- CSurgical mask and gloves, and alcohol-based hand rub
- DGown and gloves on entry, and hand-washing with soap and water
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: D — Gown and gloves on entry, and hand-washing with soap and water
C. difficile spreads by contact with spores from feces and contaminated surfaces, so Contact Precautions apply: gown and gloves on room entry (IDSA/SHEA 2017, strong recommendation). Alcohol does not kill spores; soap-and-water washing physically removes them and is preferred after contact with fecal contamination and in outbreak or hyperendemic settings, which is why exams key it for C. diff.
- A. Gloves without a gown let clothing carry spores to the next patient, and alcohol rub does not inactivate C. difficile spores.
- B. C. difficile is not airborne. An N95 and a negative-pressure room are for diseases such as tuberculosis, measles and varicella.
- C. A mask adds nothing against a contact-spread organism, the gown is missing, and alcohol rub is the weaker choice against spores.
A patient on pressure-control ventilation with an FiO2 of 0.55 and PEEP of 5 cm H2O has this ABG: pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 53 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L. Which change should the respiratory therapist recommend?
- AIncrease the set rate
- BIncrease the FiO2 to 0.80
- CIncrease the PEEP
- DMake no change
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: C — Increase the PEEP
Ventilation is normal (pH and PaCO2 are normal); the problem is oxygenation. When the FiO2 is already above about 0.50-0.60 and the PaO2 is still under 60 mm Hg, the next step is to raise PEEP. It recruits collapsed alveoli and increases FRC, treating shunt-type hypoxemia without adding to the risk of oxygen toxicity.
- A. A higher rate increases minute ventilation, drives PaCO2 below normal into respiratory alkalosis, and does nothing for oxygenation.
- B. More oxygen may nudge the PaO2 up, but above an FiO2 of 0.5-0.6 the risk of oxygen toxicity and absorption atelectasis climbs, and shunt responds poorly to FiO2 alone. PEEP is the preferred next step.
- D. A PaO2 of 53 mm Hg (SpO2 roughly 87%) is below the usual target of at least 60 mm Hg, so leaving the settings alone is not acceptable.
A comatose, intubated patient is being transferred by air ambulance. Which consideration is MOST important for the respiratory therapist during the flight?
- AEndotracheal tube cuff pressure will rise as the aircraft climbs, so it must be checked and adjusted
- BThe FiO2 can usually be lowered as an unpressurized aircraft climbs
- CAn untreated pneumothorax will enlarge as the aircraft descends
- DMonitoring is harder in fixed-wing aircraft than in helicopters
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Endotracheal tube cuff pressure will rise as the aircraft climbs, so it must be checked and adjusted
Boyle's law: as altitude rises, barometric pressure falls and any trapped gas expands. An air-filled ETT cuff can over-inflate during ascent and injure the tracheal mucosa, so cuff pressure is monitored and air removed (some services fill cuffs with saline for flight), then re-checked on descent. The same law explains why each distractor has the physics backwards.
- B. Falling barometric pressure lowers inspired and alveolar PO2, so oxygen needs rise, not fall, as an unpressurized aircraft climbs.
- C. Trapped gas expands on ascent, not descent. An untreated pneumothorax is most dangerous as the aircraft climbs, which is why it is decompressed before flight.
- D. Helicopters are noisier, more cramped and vibrate more, so auscultation and monitoring are harder there than in most fixed-wing aircraft; the statement is reversed.
A patient with a predicted body weight of 70 kg is on volume-control A/C: VT 560 mL (8 mL/kg PBW), set rate 12/min with no spontaneous triggering, FiO2 0.40, PEEP 5 cm H2O, plateau pressure 24 cm H2O. ABG: pH 7.29, PaCO2 54 mm Hg, PaO2 88 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L. Which change is MOST appropriate?
- AIncrease the FiO2 to 0.50
- BIncrease the PEEP to 8 cm H2O
- CIncrease the set rate to about 16/min
- DIncrease the VT to 700 mL (10 mL/kg PBW)
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: C — Increase the set rate to about 16/min
This is an acute respiratory acidosis with adequate oxygenation, so the fix is more alveolar ventilation. The VT is already at the top of the lung-protective range (4-8 mL/kg PBW), so the rate is the lever to pull. New rate = current rate x current PaCO2 / desired PaCO2 = 12 x 54 / 40, or about 16 breaths/min.
- A. A PaO2 of 88 mm Hg is already adequate, and FiO2 changes oxygenation, not CO2 removal.
- B. PEEP is an oxygenation tool; it does not lower PaCO2, and oxygenation is already fine.
- D. 10 mL/kg PBW exceeds the 4-8 mL/kg lung-protective range and would raise plateau pressure and the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury. Rate is the safer lever.
Score yourself
Eight items is a small sample, so read this as a direction, not a verdict. What matters more is which ones you missed — check their domain tags.
Go back to the outline and rebuild the weak domains before you do more questions.
The base is there. Drill the domains you missed in sets of 20–30 until they stop costing points.
Move to timed, full-length mocks. Aim to hold this score across a few hundred questions, not eight.
What these questions teach you about the exam
Get past the individual answers and the same habits keep deciding the item:
One number decides the item
TMC stems hand you a full set of values but only one of them settles the answer: an FiO2 already above 0.5 sends you to PEEP, a VT already at 8 mL/kg PBW sends you to the rate, a pH on the acid side of 7.40 names the primary problem. Find that value before you read the options.
Check the device before you treat the number
Domain II items describe a monitor or device that disagrees with the patient. The keyed answer is almost always the quick bedside check (probe, connection, signal) before an invasive test or a treatment, and FIRST or MOST wording is testing that sequence.
Distractors are true facts turned around
Wrong options often state a real principle backwards: gas expands on descent instead of ascent, release the radial instead of the ulnar artery, alcohol rub instead of soap for spores. If an option sounds familiar, check the direction before you choose it.
Where these questions sit on the outline
Each item is tagged with the NBRC outline domain it tests. The real exam spreads its questions by weight, so a domain with a big share deserves a matching share of your practice.
| Domain | Exam share | On this page |
|---|---|---|
| I. Patient Data | 35.7% | 3 |
| II. Troubleshooting and Quality Control of Devices, and Infection Control | 14.3% | 2 |
| III. Initiation and Modification of Interventions | 50.0% | 3 |
For what each domain actually asks, see the NBRC TMC content outline.
Eight down, 492 to go
ExamCert AI has 500 NBRC TMC questions written in this style, each with the same answer-and-distractor rationale. Work them by domain, find the gap, close it.
Practise NBRC TMC on ExamCert AIFAQ
How many questions are on the NBRC TMC exam?
160 multiple-choice items in 3 hours: 140 scored and 20 unscored pretest items you cannot identify. The scored items are split 50 Patient Data, 20 Troubleshooting and Quality Control, and 70 Initiation and Modification of Interventions. The TMC's last test day is December 31, 2026; from January 1, 2027 the Respiratory Therapy Examination (185 items, 160 scored, 4 hours) replaces it.
Are practice tests like the real TMC?
Only the NBRC's own Self-Assessment Examinations are written to the exam's specifications by the examination committees, and they are the only products that include the committees' rationale for each best answer. They are sold through PSI's online store. Commercial and app question banks are useful for volume and for drilling weak domains, but their difficulty and wording vary.
What score should I aim for on TMC practice questions?
The NBRC does not publish its cut scores on its exam pages; it uses a low cut score for the CRT and a high cut score that also opens the CSE. Because one sitting decides both, practise for the high cut: in 2025, 78.5% of first-time candidates reached the low cut but only 68.2% reached the high cut. Aim to score consistently above two-thirds on mixed, timed sets rather than on a single topic.
How many TMC practice questions should I do?
There is no official number. Cover all three domains in proportion to the outline, so about half of your practice should be Domain III interventions, and take at least one or two full 160-item timed mocks. The real pace is about 67 seconds per item, and every item should be answered because there is no penalty for guessing.
Sources
Exam facts come from NBRC; clinical content was checked against the references below.
- NBRC - TMC Detailed Content Outline (effective January 2020)
- NBRC - Resources (Self-Assessment Examinations)
- AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines: Artificial Airway Suctioning (Respir Care 2022)
- IDSA/SHEA Clinical Practice Guidelines for Clostridium difficile Infection: 2017 Update
- ERS/ATS technical standard on interpretive strategies for routine lung function tests (2022)
- CDC - Isolation Precautions guideline
- Cystic Fibrosis Foundation - Mucus Thinners
- AARC Clinical Practice Guideline: Humidification During Invasive and Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation (2012)
- NBRC - Certified Respiratory Therapist (CRT)
- NBRC - Registered Respiratory Therapist (RRT)
- NBRC - Respiratory Therapy Examination Detailed Content Outline (effective January 2027)
- NBRC - Candidate Handbook (Sept 2026)
Checked October 3, 2026. Outlines, fees and clinical guidance change — confirm with NBRC and your program before test day.
