RRT Practice Questions 2026: 8 Exam-Style Items Explained
8 exam-style RRT questions with the answer, the reasoning and why each distractor is wrong. Commit to a letter before you reveal.
- 8 questionsOn this page
- 22 itemsReal exam
- 240 minTime limit
- $200Exam fee
- 600Bank on ExamCert AI

Table of Contents
How to use this page
These 8 items are written the way the Therapist Multiple-Choice (TMC) Examination at the high cut score + Clinical Simulation Examination (CSE) (through 2026/2027); replaced by the single Respiratory Therapy (RT) Examination at the high cut score from January 1, 2027 writes them: one best answer, plausible distractors, and a stem that usually hides the deciding detail in one clause. Treat it as a mini mock, not reading material.
The 8 questions
A 12-hour-old infant born at 28 weeks' gestation has grunting, nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. The chest radiograph shows a diffuse ground-glass (reticulogranular) pattern with air bronchograms and low lung volumes. Which condition is MOST likely?
- ARespiratory distress syndrome (surfactant deficiency)
- BMeconium aspiration syndrome
- CTransient tachypnea of the newborn
- DBronchopulmonary dysplasia
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Respiratory distress syndrome (surfactant deficiency)
Prematurity plus grunting and retractions in the first hours of life, with ground glass, air bronchograms and low lung volumes on the film, is the textbook picture of RDS: too little surfactant causes diffuse alveolar collapse. Grunting is the infant's way of holding end-expiratory pressure, which is why CPAP and surfactant are the core treatments. RDS is one of the two neonatal problems on the CSE.
- B. Meconium aspiration affects term and post-term infants, and its film shows patchy, coarse infiltrates with hyperinflation and air trapping, not uniform ground glass with low volumes.
- C. TTN usually affects term or near-term infants (often after cesarean delivery), shows fluid in the fissures and perihilar streaking, and typically clears within 24-72 hours.
- D. BPD is a chronic lung disease defined by a continuing oxygen need weeks after birth; it cannot be the diagnosis at 12 hours old.
A ventilated patient has a heated humidifier and an unheated circuit. A large pool of condensate has collected in the inspiratory limb and the circuit is gurgling. What should the respiratory therapist do?
- ADrain the condensate back into the humidifier chamber to conserve water
- BLift the tubing so the condensate runs toward the endotracheal tube, then suction the patient
- CWearing gloves, drain the condensate away from the patient into a water trap or waste container and discard it as contaminated
- DLeave it in place, because the water adds humidity to the inspired gas
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: C — Wearing gloves, drain the condensate away from the patient into a water trap or waste container and discard it as contaminated
Circuit condensate is quickly colonized by bacteria from the patient. CDC guidance is to drain and discard it periodically, never letting it run toward the patient, and to wear gloves and clean hands afterward. Left in place it also adds resistance, can cause auto-triggering and can be aspirated.
- A. Returning contaminated condensate to the humidifier seeds the reservoir with bacteria that are then carried to the patient.
- B. Draining condensate toward the patient delivers a contaminated bolus into the airway, a recognized risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia.
- D. Pooled water does not humidify the gas in any useful way; it obstructs the circuit, raises resistance, can cause auto-triggering and is an infection risk.
A patient brought in after an opioid overdose is breathing room air at a barometric pressure of 747 mm Hg. ABG: pH 7.25, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, PaO2 58 mm Hg, HCO3- 27 mEq/L. Which interpretation of the alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient is correct?
- AP(A-a)O2 about 9 mm Hg: the hypoxemia is explained by hypoventilation, so restoring ventilation is the priority
- BP(A-a)O2 about 89 mm Hg: the hypoxemia indicates a large intrapulmonary shunt
- CP(A-a)O2 about 9 mm Hg: the hypoxemia indicates a diffusion defect
- DP(A-a)O2 about 25 mm Hg: the hypoxemia indicates V/Q mismatch from aspiration
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — P(A-a)O2 about 9 mm Hg: the hypoxemia is explained by hypoventilation, so restoring ventilation is the priority
PAO2 = FiO2 x (PB - 47) - PaCO2/0.8 = 0.21 x 700 - 64/0.8 = 147 - 80 = 67 mm Hg, so P(A-a)O2 = 67 - 58 = 9 mm Hg, which is normal on room air. A normal gradient means the lungs are moving oxygen normally; the low PaO2 comes from CO2 crowding oxygen out of the alveoli. Treat the cause of hypoventilation (naloxone, ventilatory support if needed); oxygen alone would only hide it.
- B. 89 mm Hg comes from forgetting to subtract PaCO2/0.8. A true shunt would widen the gradient and respond poorly to oxygen, and these numbers show neither.
- C. The arithmetic is right but the conclusion is not: a diffusion defect widens the gradient, especially on exertion, whereas a normal gradient points to hypoventilation or low inspired oxygen.
- D. 25 mm Hg comes from subtracting PaCO2 without dividing by the respiratory quotient (0.8). The real gradient is normal, so there is no evidence of V/Q mismatch from aspiration.
A 40-year-old man is brought in from a house fire. He has a headache and is confused. On room air his respiratory rate is 22/min and the pulse oximeter reads SpO2 98%. Which should the respiratory therapist recommend?
- AContinue observation on room air, since the SpO2 is normal
- BGive oxygen by nasal cannula titrated to an SpO2 of 92-96%
- CGive 100% oxygen by non-rebreathing mask and obtain an arterial sample for CO-oximetry
- DObtain a chest radiograph before starting any oxygen
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: C — Give 100% oxygen by non-rebreathing mask and obtain an arterial sample for CO-oximetry
Standard two-wavelength pulse oximeters cannot tell carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin, so SpO2 reads falsely high in carbon monoxide poisoning. Smoke exposure plus headache and confusion makes CO poisoning likely: give the highest FiO2 available at once (100% oxygen shortens the COHb half-life from about 4-5 hours on room air to roughly 1-1.5 hours) and measure COHb by CO-oximetry. SpO2 cannot be used to titrate.
- A. A normal SpO2 means nothing here: the oximeter counts COHb as oxygenated hemoglobin and can hide severe CO poisoning.
- B. Titrating to SpO2 relies on the very number CO falsifies, and a low FiO2 slows CO elimination; this patient needs the highest FiO2 available.
- D. A chest film may help later with inhalation injury, but it does not diagnose CO poisoning, and delaying oxygen is harmful.
A home-care patient uses a portable liquid oxygen unit that holds 4 lb of liquid oxygen and receives 4 L/min by nasal cannula. About how long will the unit last?
- AAbout 1.4 hours
- BAbout 5.7 hours
- CAbout 11.5 hours
- DAbout 14.3 hours
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — About 5.7 hours
One pound of liquid oxygen yields about 344 L of gaseous oxygen. 4 lb x 344 L/lb = 1,376 L, and 1,376 L / 4 L/min = 344 min, or about 5.7 hours. Convert weight to gas volume first, then divide by the flow; in practice the unit also vents some gas when idle, so real duration is a little shorter.
- A. 1.4 hours is the answer for 1 lb (344 L / 4 L/min); it ignores the 4-lb contents.
- C. 11.5 hours is the duration at 2 L/min, not at the prescribed 4 L/min.
- D. 14.3 hours uses the 860:1 liquid-to-gas expansion ratio as if it were liters of gas per pound; 860 applies per liter of liquid, not per pound.
A 1-hour-old infant born at 31 weeks is on a 1 L/min nasal cannula from a blender set at FiO2 0.40. ABG: pH 7.33, PaCO2 47 mm Hg, PaO2 92 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L. Which should the respiratory therapist recommend?
- AIncrease the FiO2 to 0.50
- BDecrease the FiO2 and titrate to the unit's SpO2 target
- CChange to an oxygen hood at the same FiO2
- DIntubate and begin mechanical ventilation
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — Decrease the FiO2 and titrate to the unit's SpO2 target
Ventilation is acceptable for a newborn (pH 7.33, PaCO2 47), but a PaO2 of 92 mm Hg is above the usual 50-80 mm Hg target for a preterm infant. Excess oxygen in preterm infants is linked to retinopathy of prematurity and lung injury, so wean the FiO2 to the unit's SpO2 target (commonly about 90-95% in preterm infants) instead of leaving it high.
- A. More oxygen deepens the hyperoxia in an infant who is already above target.
- C. Switching to a hood at the same FiO2 changes the device, not the problem, which is too much oxygen.
- D. The infant is ventilating adequately and is over-oxygenated; nothing here indicates intubation.
A 16-year-old with cystic fibrosis wants an airway clearance technique she can do on her own without a device, and the respiratory therapist teaches autogenic drainage. Which description of the technique is correct?
- AControlled breathing that starts at low lung volume and moves to mid and then high lung volume, moving mucus from small to larger airways before a huff
- BRepeated forceful coughs from total lung capacity at the start of the session
- CExhaling against a fixed resistor to splint the airways open
- DForced exhalation down to residual volume to squeeze mucus out of collapsed small airways
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Controlled breathing that starts at low lung volume and moves to mid and then high lung volume, moving mucus from small to larger airways before a huff
Autogenic drainage uses breathing at different lung volumes: an 'unstick' phase at low volume loosens peripheral secretions, a 'collect' phase at mid volume moves them into the middle airways, and an 'evacuate' phase at high volume brings them to the central airways, where a huff clears them. It needs no equipment but takes practice and is harder to teach than most techniques, so it suits older children and adults.
- B. Forceful coughing early in the session causes dynamic airway collapse in CF and moves little peripheral mucus; autogenic drainage holds the cough until secretions are central.
- C. Breathing out against a resistor is positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy, a different technique that needs a device.
- D. Forcing air out to residual volume collapses the small airways and traps mucus; autogenic drainage keeps exhalation active but unforced to avoid that collapse.
A woman who is 64 inches (163 cm) tall has ARDS from pneumonia. She is on volume-control A/C: VT 500 mL, rate 18/min, PEEP 10 cm H2O, FiO2 0.60. Plateau pressure is 33 cm H2O. ABG: pH 7.36, PaCO2 42 mm Hg, PaO2 66 mm Hg. Which change is MOST appropriate?
- ADecrease VT to about 330 mL (6 mL/kg PBW) and increase the rate to keep minute ventilation
- BDecrease PEEP to 5 cm H2O to bring the plateau pressure under 30
- CIncrease VT to 600 mL to improve oxygenation
- DIncrease FiO2 to 1.0 and keep the current VT
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Decrease VT to about 330 mL (6 mL/kg PBW) and increase the rate to keep minute ventilation
Her predicted body weight is 45.5 + 2.3 x (64 - 60) = 54.7 kg, so 500 mL is about 9 mL/kg PBW, and a plateau pressure of 33 cm H2O breaks the ARDSNet limit of 30. Lung-protective ventilation sets VT at 6 mL/kg PBW (about 330 mL) and raises the rate (up to 35/min) to limit the rise in PaCO2. Her P/F ratio of 110 is moderate ARDS, so PEEP stays where the PEEP/FiO2 table puts it.
- B. Dropping PEEP lowers the plateau pressure only by derecruiting lung and will worsen an already low PaO2; at FiO2 0.60 the ARDSNet tables call for PEEP of 10 or more, not less.
- C. A bigger VT raises plateau pressure further and adds ventilator-induced lung injury; oxygenation in ARDS is improved with PEEP and FiO2, not larger breaths.
- D. More oxygen does not fix the injurious VT and plateau pressure, and an FiO2 of 1.0 is a last step after PEEP and lung protection are in place.
Score yourself
Eight items is a small sample, so read this as a direction, not a verdict. What matters more is which ones you missed — check their domain tags.
Go back to the outline and rebuild the weak domains before you do more questions.
The base is there. Drill the domains you missed in sets of 20–30 until they stop costing points.
Move to timed, full-length mocks. Aim to hold this score across a few hundred questions, not eight.
What these questions teach you about the exam
Get past the individual answers and the same habits keep deciding the item:
Get the right data, then act on it
The CSE rewards gathering the information that changes the next decision: a normal SpO2 in a smoke victim is the cue for CO-oximetry, not reassurance. In the real exam the same habit scores in information-gathering sections, where indicated, low-risk data earns points and irrelevant or harmful tests cost them.
Calculate before you decide
Several items need a number before the choice makes sense: predicted body weight, P(A-a)O2, P/F ratio, oxygen duration. The distractors are built from the usual slips (forgetting to divide PaCO2 by 0.8, using actual instead of predicted weight, the wrong conversion factor), so write the formula down and check the units.
The safest effective option wins
Options that make a number look better at the patient's expense lose: more oxygen for an over-oxygenated preterm infant, a bigger tidal volume in ARDS, draining condensate toward the airway. CSE scoring follows the same logic, giving the most points to the choice a competent RRT would make and taking points away for harmful ones.
Where these questions sit on the outline
Each item is tagged with the NBRC outline domain it tests. The real exam spreads its questions by weight, so a domain with a big share deserves a matching share of your practice.
| Domain | Exam share | On this page |
|---|---|---|
| I. Patient Data | — | 3 |
| II. Troubleshooting and Quality Control of Equipment, and Infection Control | — | 2 |
| III. Initiation and Modification of Interventions | — | 3 |
For what each domain actually asks, see the RRT content outline.
Eight down, 592 to go
ExamCert AI has 600 RRT questions written in this style, each with the same answer-and-distractor rationale. Work them by domain, find the gap, close it.
Practise RRT on ExamCert AIFAQ
How many problems are on the NBRC Clinical Simulation Exam?
22 patient-management problems in 4 hours: 20 scored and 2 unscored pretest problems. The 20 scored problems follow a fixed mix: 7 adult chronic airways disease, 1 adult trauma, 2 adult cardiovascular, 1 adult neurological or neuromuscular, 5 adult medical or surgical, 2 pediatric and 2 neonatal. Each problem combines information-gathering and decision-making sections.
Are multiple-choice practice questions like the real CSE?
Not in format. The CSE is a branching simulation where your choices reveal data and change the patient's course, while multiple-choice items test one decision at a time. Single-answer scenario questions still train the same clinical judgment; for the format itself, the NBRC sells official CSE Self-Assessment Examinations through PSI, the only products with the examination committee's rationales.
What score do I need to pass the CSE?
The NBRC does not publish a numeric cut score. Points from all your choices are summed across the exam into one score that is compared with a cut score set by the examination committee. In 2025, 63.6% of first-time CSE candidates passed. Remember the CSE runs only until December 31, 2027 and is open only to candidates who reach the TMC high cut by December 31, 2026.
How many practice problems should I do before the CSE?
There is no official number. Work at least one problem of every category in the CSE outline, including the pediatric and neonatal ones, and do at least one full timed simulation; 22 problems in 4 hours is roughly 11 minutes each. Review every option you chose that lost points, because those habits repeat across problems.
Sources
Exam facts come from NBRC; clinical content was checked against the references below.
- NBRC - CSE Detailed Content Outline (effective January 2020)
- NBRC - Resources (Self-Assessment Examinations)
- ARDS Network - NIH NHLBI ARDS Clinical Network Mechanical Ventilation Protocol Summary
- ATS/ESICM/SCCM Clinical Practice Guideline: Mechanical Ventilation in Adult Patients with ARDS (2017)
- Matthay et al. A New Global Definition of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (AJRCCM 2024)
- ACCP/ATS Guideline: Liberation from Mechanical Ventilation in Critically Ill Adults (Chest 2017)
- ERS/ATS Clinical Practice Guidelines: Noninvasive Ventilation for Acute Respiratory Failure (2017)
- CDC - Guidelines for Preventing Health-Care-Associated Pneumonia, 2003
- Yang KL, Tobin MJ. A prospective study of indexes predicting the outcome of trials of weaning (NEJM 1991)
- NBRC - Registered Respiratory Therapist (RRT)
- NBRC - Clinical Simulation Examination (CSE)
- NBRC - Respiratory Therapy Examination Detailed Content Outline (effective January 2027)
Checked October 3, 2026. Outlines, fees and clinical guidance change — confirm with NBRC and your program before test day.
