VTNE Practice Questions 2026: 8 Exam-Style Items Explained

Answer: C — PD3

AVDC stages periodontal disease by the amount of attachment loss, measured with a periodontal probe and dental radiographs. PD3 (moderate periodontitis) is 25-50% attachment loss, so 30-40% is PD3. Stage is recorded tooth by tooth on the dental chart.

• A. PD1 is gingivitis only, with no attachment loss.
• B. PD2 (early periodontitis) is less than 25% attachment loss.
• D. PD4 (advanced periodontitis) is more than 50% attachment loss.

Answer: C — Spherocytes

In IMHA, splenic macrophages remove antibody-coated patches of red cell membrane, leaving small, dense, round cells with no central pallor. Marked spherocytosis together with autoagglutination is the classic smear picture of canine IMHA, and cocker spaniels are a predisposed breed. Spherocytes are hard to recognize in cats because feline red cells normally have little central pallor.

• A. Eccentrocytes (hemoglobin pushed to one side of the cell) point to oxidative injury, such as onion, garlic or acetaminophen exposure, not antibody-mediated destruction.
• B. Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear remnants seen with strong regeneration or after splenectomy; they are not specific for IMHA.
• D. Heinz bodies are clumps of oxidized hemoglobin from toxins such as onions, zinc or acetaminophen (and are seen in small numbers in normal cats); they indicate oxidative, not immune, hemolysis.

Answer: B — 120 mL

The order is written in mL/kg, so volume = body weight x dose rate: 30 kg x 4 mL/kg = 120 mL. The 7.5% is the concentration of the product, not part of this calculation. Hypertonic saline is given in small volumes because it pulls interstitial water into the vessels; it is normally followed by isotonic crystalloids.

• A. 12 mL is a decimal-point slip (0.4 mL/kg instead of 4 mL/kg) and would be a tenth of the ordered dose.
• C. 225 mL comes from multiplying the weight by 7.5, mistaking the percent concentration for the dose rate.
• D. 2,700 mL is 90 mL/kg, the old full shock dose of an isotonic crystalloid for dogs; giving that volume of 7.5% saline would cause severe hypernatremia.

Answer: A — A self-retaining retractor with finger rings, a ratchet and several rake-like prongs on each arm

A Weitlaner is a self-retaining retractor: its ratchet locks the arms open, and each arm ends in a rake of several prongs that hold the wound edges apart without an assistant. Self-retaining retractors are told apart by their tips, so knowing the tip pattern is what the item tests.

• B. A ratcheted self-retaining retractor with a single sharp point on each arm is a Gelpi retractor.
• C. A hand-held retractor with a flat blade at each end describes an Army-Navy retractor, which must be held by an assistant.
• D. A ratcheted clamp with curved, pointed tips for securing drapes is a Backhaus towel clamp, not a retractor.

Answer: A — Apply a sterile ophthalmic lubricant to both corneas and reapply it during longer procedures

Dissociative anesthetics such as ketamine leave the eyes open and central with infrequent blinking, and tear production falls under anesthesia, so the cornea dries and can ulcerate. A sterile ophthalmic lubricant applied at induction and repeated as needed keeps the cornea moist. Eye lubrication is standard for every general anesthetic, but it is essential with dissociatives.

• B. Saline evaporates within minutes and leaves no protective film, so a single rinse does not prevent corneal drying.
• C. A palpebral reflex may persist with ketamine, but the cat blinks too rarely to keep the cornea wet; the open eye still dries.
• D. A warm compress does not keep the cornea moist and is not part of standard anesthetic eye care.

Answer: A — About 7 mL/hr

RER = 70 x 7.62, about 533 kcal/day. One-third of that is about 178 kcal, which is 178 mL of a 1 kcal/mL diet; spread over 24 hours that is about 7.4 mL/hr. Building up from one-third of RER over about 3 days (one-third, two-thirds, then full) lowers the risk of vomiting, diarrhea and refeeding syndrome in an anorexic patient.

• B. About 15 mL/hr is two-thirds of RER, the usual day-2 step, not the day-1 rate.
• C. About 22 mL/hr delivers the full RER (533 mL / 24 h), the target for day 3, not day 1.
• D. About 178 mL/hr enters the whole day-1 volume as an hourly rate and would deliver 24 times the intended amount.

Answer: D — Early (hyperdynamic) septic shock

In early, compensated sepsis, inflammatory mediators dilate peripheral vessels, giving injected brick-red membranes, a very fast CRT and bounding pulses, along with fever and tachycardia. An infected bite wound is a typical source. As sepsis decompensates the picture flips to pale membranes, slow CRT, weak pulses and often hypothermia.

• A. Hypovolemic shock from blood or fluid loss gives pale membranes, a prolonged CRT and weak pulses, not red membranes and bounding pulses.
• B. Cardiogenic shock (pump failure) gives pale or cyanotic membranes and weak pulses, often with a murmur, arrhythmia or crackles.
• C. Obstructive shock (for example GDV or pericardial tamponade) blocks venous return and also gives pale membranes and weak pulses.

Answer: C — Start a lidocaine constant-rate infusion

Cats are much more sensitive than dogs to systemic lidocaine: in anesthetized cats a lidocaine infusion caused more cardiovascular depression than an equipotent dose of isoflurane alone, and CNS signs, bradycardia and hypotension appear at lower doses. So the lidocaine CRI that is routine for dogs is generally avoided in cats. The hunched posture, guarding and inappetence suggest undertreated pain, which a full mu-opioid or an adjunct can address.

• A. Gabapentin is a widely used analgesic adjunct and anxiolytic in cats and can be added to an opioid plan.
• B. Fentanyl is a full mu-opioid agonist that is titratable as a CRI and well tolerated in cats; it is a logical step up from buprenorphine.
• D. Methadone is a full mu-opioid agonist (with some NMDA antagonism) that is commonly given IV to cats for moderate to severe pain.