CSFA Practice Questions 2026: 8 Exam-Style Items Explained
8 exam-style CSFA questions with the answer, the reasoning and why each distractor is wrong. Commit to a letter before you reveal.
- 8 questionsOn this page
- 175 itemsReal exam
- 240 minTime limit
- $350Exam fee
- 1,188Bank on ExamCert AI

Table of Contents
How to use this page
These 8 items are written the way the NBSTSA National Certifying Examination for the Certified Surgical First Assistant (CSFA) writes them: one best answer, plausible distractors, and a stem that usually hides the deciding detail in one clause. Treat it as a mini mock, not reading material.
The 8 questions
When the surgical first assistant chooses a needle for a given tissue, what is the main goal of the choice?
- ACause the least possible trauma to the tissue
- BGet the most corrosion-resistant needle available
- CGet the firmest grip in the needle holder
- DUse the largest needle available so closure goes faster
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Cause the least possible trauma to the tissue
Needle selection is driven by the tissue: the right point, body and size let the needle pass with the least trauma, in line with Halsted's principle of gentle tissue handling. Taper points suit soft tissue such as bowel and vessels; cutting and reverse-cutting points suit tough tissue such as skin.
- B. Surgical needles are all made from corrosion-resistant stainless steel alloys, so this does not separate one choice from another.
- C. Stability in the needle holder matters, and flattened needle bodies help, but it is a design feature, not the reason for choosing one needle over another.
- D. An oversized needle makes a bigger track and more trauma. Needle size is matched to the tissue and suture, not to speed.
During dissection a named artery is cut and bleeds briskly. The surgeon controls it with a hemostat. Which method gives permanent hemostasis for this vessel?
- APacking an absorbable gelatin sponge over the bleeding end
- BLigating the vessel with a free tie or a suture ligature
- CPlacing a closed-suction drain in the wound
- DApplying a pressure dressing at the end of the case
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — Ligating the vessel with a free tie or a suture ligature
A transected artery needs mechanical, permanent hemostasis: a tie around the clamped end, a suture ligature (stick tie) for a large vessel or short pedicle, or clips. Topical agents and pressure are meant for capillary or venous oozing, not arterial bleeding.
- A. Absorbable gelatin sponge is a topical adjunct for oozing surfaces; it will not hold an arterial bleeder against arterial pressure.
- C. A drain removes blood and fluid after the fact. It does not stop bleeding and can hide ongoing hemorrhage.
- D. A pressure dressing goes on after closure and cannot control an open arterial bleeder inside the wound.
A patient is placed in the right lateral decubitus position for a left thoracotomy. Why does the surgical first assistant confirm that an axillary roll is in place?
- ATo support the head and keep the cervical spine aligned
- BTo take pressure off the dependent axilla and protect the brachial plexus
- CTo lift the operative side and widen the intercostal spaces
- DTo stabilize the pelvis so the patient does not roll forward
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — To take pressure off the dependent axilla and protect the brachial plexus
In the lateral position the dependent shoulder carries body weight, which can compress the brachial plexus and axillary vessels. A roll placed just caudal to the axilla, under the upper chest wall rather than in the armpit, lifts the chest so the dependent shoulder and neurovascular bundle are off-loaded. The radial pulse in the dependent arm is checked after placement.
- A. Head support comes from a pillow or head rest sized to keep the cervical spine neutral, not from the axillary roll.
- C. The intercostal spaces are widened by flexing the table or raising the kidney rest, not by the axillary roll.
- D. The pelvis and torso are stabilized with a beanbag, padded supports, a safety strap and tape, not with the axillary roll.
The evening after ORIF of a tibial fracture, the patient reports severe pain that opioids do not relieve and numbness of the foot. The lower leg is tense and shiny, and passively stretching the toes makes the pain much worse. What is the priority action?
- ANotify the surgeon immediately to evaluate for compartment syndrome
- BElevate the leg well above heart level and apply ice
- CGive another dose of analgesic and reassess in one hour
- DDocument the findings and recheck at the next routine assessment
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Notify the surgeon immediately to evaluate for compartment syndrome
Pain out of proportion to the injury, pain on passive stretch, a tense compartment and numbness are signs of acute compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency that may need fasciotomy within hours. The surgeon must be told at once; meanwhile any tight dressing or cast is loosened and the limb is kept at heart level.
- B. Raising the leg well above the heart lowers arterial inflow and can worsen ischemia; the limb is kept at heart level, and ice does not treat compartment syndrome.
- C. More analgesia masks the key symptom and delays a time-critical diagnosis.
- D. Waiting for the next routine check wastes hours, and muscle and nerve damage can become permanent within hours of ischemia.
What is the main reason a smoke evacuator is used while monopolar electrosurgery is cutting tissue?
- ATo keep the sterile field sterile
- BTo capture surgical plume, which carries toxic gases, fine particles and possibly viable biologic material
- CTo give the surgeon a clearer view through the camera
- DTo lower the risk of a surgical fire
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — To capture surgical plume, which carries toxic gases, fine particles and possibly viable biologic material
Surgical plume contains toxic gases and vapors such as benzene, hydrogen cyanide and formaldehyde, fine particulates and possibly viable biologic material. NIOSH and AORN recommend capturing it at the source with a smoke evacuator to protect the team and the patient, so it is a hazard-control measure.
- A. The sterile field is maintained by aseptic technique; a smoke evacuator does not make the field more or less sterile.
- C. Clearer visibility is a side benefit, especially in laparoscopy, but the reason it is recommended is protecting people from plume.
- D. Removing smoke does not remove fuel, oxygen or the ignition source, so it is not a fire-prevention measure.
A reusable device will contact a patient's mucous membranes but will not enter sterile tissue or the vascular system. Under the Spaulding classification, what is the minimum level of reprocessing it needs?
- ALow-level disinfection
- BIntermediate-level disinfection
- CHigh-level disinfection
- DThorough cleaning only
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: C — High-level disinfection
Spaulding sorts items by infection risk. Semicritical items, those that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin such as flexible endoscopes and laryngoscope blades, need at least high-level disinfection, with sterilization preferred when practical. Critical items that enter sterile tissue need sterilization; noncritical items that touch only intact skin need low-level disinfection.
- A. Low-level disinfection is for noncritical items that touch only intact skin, such as blood pressure cuffs.
- B. Intermediate-level disinfection kills mycobacteria and most viruses but is used for noncritical items; it falls short of the high-level standard required for mucous membrane contact.
- D. Cleaning removes soil and bioburden and must always come first, but on its own it does not disinfect the device.
A trauma patient has a stab wound at the left fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. Which structure lies beneath this point and is most at risk?
- ALeft ventricle at the cardiac apex
- BRight ventricle
- CSpleen
- DLeft atrium
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: A — Left ventricle at the cardiac apex
The cardiac apex, formed by the left ventricle, lies at the left fifth intercostal space at about the midclavicular line, which is where the apex beat is felt. The cardiac notch of the left lung leaves the heart less covered there, so a penetrating wound at this point threatens the left ventricle and pericardium, with a risk of tamponade.
- B. The right ventricle forms most of the front of the heart, but it lies mainly behind the sternum and the left parasternal area, medial to the midclavicular line.
- C. The spleen sits in the left upper quadrant behind ribs 9 to 11 near the midaxillary line, well below and lateral to this point.
- D. The left atrium forms the back (base) of the heart, the chamber farthest from an anterior chest wound.
After a shotgun wound to the upper front of the thigh just below the inguinal ligament, a patient cannot extend the knee and has lost sensation over the anterior and medial thigh. Which nerve is injured?
- AObturator nerve
- BFemoral nerve
- CSciatic nerve
- DGenitofemoral nerve
Reveal the answer and rationale
Answer: B — Femoral nerve
The femoral nerve enters the thigh lateral to the femoral artery in the femoral triangle. It supplies the quadriceps, which extend the knee, and gives anterior cutaneous branches to the front and medial thigh plus the saphenous nerve to the medial leg, so weak knee extension with anteromedial thigh numbness localizes to it.
- A. The obturator nerve supplies the hip adductors and a patch of skin on the medial thigh; it does not extend the knee.
- C. The sciatic nerve runs in the back of the thigh and supplies the hamstrings and everything below the knee, not the quadriceps.
- D. The genitofemoral nerve is sensory to a small area of the upper anterior thigh and the genital region and plays no part in knee extension.
Score yourself
Eight items is a small sample, so read this as a direction, not a verdict. What matters more is which ones you missed — check their domain tags.
Go back to the outline and rebuild the weak domains before you do more questions.
The base is there. Drill the domains you missed in sets of 20–30 until they stop costing points.
Move to timed, full-length mocks. Aim to hold this score across a few hundred questions, not eight.
What these questions teach you about the exam
Get past the individual answers and the same habits keep deciding the item:
Exposure and hemostasis carry the exam
Intraoperative Procedures is 67 of the 150 scored CSFA items, and most of them ask what the assistant does to expose, control bleeding or close. Expect to choose between temporary and permanent hemostasis, and between a topical adjunct and mechanical control, based on the bleeding source.
Anatomy comes through a wound or an approach
Advanced Anatomy (36 items) is asked as a scenario: a wound location, an injury pattern or an incision, and you name the structure at risk or the nerve involved. Learn surface landmarks and each nerve's motor and sensory territory, not just lists.
Recognize, then escalate
Postoperative and safety items reward spotting the problem and acting at the right level: compartment syndrome goes to the surgeon now, plume goes to the evacuator. The distractors usually delay, mask a symptom, or treat with the wrong tool.
Where these questions sit on the outline
Each item is tagged with the NBSTSA outline domain it tests. The real exam spreads its questions by weight, so a domain with a big share deserves a matching share of your practice.
| Domain | Exam share | On this page |
|---|---|---|
| Perioperative Care | 55.3% | 4 |
| Ancillary Duties | 14.0% | 1 |
| Advanced Science | 30.7% | 3 |
For what each domain actually asks, see the CSFA content outline.
Eight down, 1,180 to go
ExamCert AI has 1,188 CSFA questions written in this style, each with the same answer-and-distractor rationale. Work them by domain, find the gap, close it.
Practise CSFA on ExamCert AIFAQ
How many questions are on the CSFA exam?
The CSFA has 175 multiple-choice questions in 4 hours: 150 scored and 25 unscored pretest items mixed in at random. The scored items split into Perioperative Care (83), Ancillary Duties (21) and Advanced Science (46).
What score do you need to pass the CSFA exam?
You need 99 correct answers out of the 150 scored questions, about 66%. It is a raw cut score set by NBSTSA standard setting, and the pretest items do not count.
Are practice questions like the real CSFA exam?
Good practice items match the one-best-answer format and the outline's emphasis on exposure, hemostasis, closure and applied anatomy. NBSTSA also sells two $40 CSFA practice exams (Form A and Form B) that simulate the testing environment but do not contain live exam questions.
How many practice questions should I do before the CSFA?
There is no official number. Cover every outline sub-area more than once, give extra time to Intraoperative Procedures (67 items) and Advanced Anatomy and Physiology (36 items), and aim to score clearly above 66% on questions you have not seen before you book.
Sources
Exam facts come from NBSTSA; clinical content was checked against the references below.
- AHA - 2020 Guidelines for CPR and ECC (adult advanced life support)
- SAGES - Safe Cholecystectomy Program (critical view of safety)
- NIOSH - Control of smoke from laser/electric surgical procedures
- CDC - Guideline for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities (Spaulding)
- SAGES FUSE - Fundamental Use of Surgical Energy
- AST - Standards of Practice
- NBSTSA - Preparing for the CSFA Exam (practice exams)
- NBSTSA - CSFA Examination Content Outline (2024)
- NBSTSA - CSFA Certification (exam overview: 4 hours, 175 questions, 99 to pass)
- NBSTSA - 2025 CSFA Candidate Handbook
- NBSTSA - CSFA Eligibility
- NBSTSA - CSFA Application Process (fees, retakes)
Checked October 3, 2026. Outlines, fees and clinical guidance change — confirm with NBSTSA and your program before test day.
